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2 years ago ::
Jul 31, 2008 - 6:14AM
#1
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When using the Airfield Strike SA to use a fighter in attacking your opponent's airfield, you have already clarified that the aircraft being attacked cannot attack back (which is absolutely great in that it reflects certain realities and the Japanese need every possible means of differentiating their competitive advantage in this game). However, do planes with the Defensive Armament SA still get the +2 armor even though this armament was not historically used to defend them while they were parked at their airfield? Should this differ for planes with the Defensive Armament SA that are reloading vs. those which are not? If the Defensive Armament is negated - as I feel it should be - it makes Airfield Strike a more formidable SA for the Japanese to leverage.
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2 years ago ::
Jul 31, 2008 - 1:58PM
#2
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Defensive Armament applies against all fighter attacks, so it does apply against Airfield Strikes, BUT ...
Defensive Armament increases only the aircraft's armor, not its vital armor. Aborting a target aircraft during an Airfield Strike has no effect -- the aircraft is already sitting out the turn at the land airbase. The only result that matters in an Airfield Strike is destruction of the target by beating its Vital Armor, which isn't bumped by Defensive Armament.
For the Japanese, the optimal attack is Zekes, on turn 1, stiffened by Expert Dogfighter, hitting something with relatively low vital armor.
I'll go ahead and answer the obvious follow-up questions now. All of these have to do with the application of the word "sector" in regard to the Airfield Strike SA. Generally, the land airbase is treated the same as a sea sector when it comes under air attack.
1) Interceptor does kick in if the enemy has no fighters at the airbase and your fighter attacks a bomber.
2) Likewise, Escort kicks in if an enemy fighter attacks your bomber on your land airbase while you have an Escort fighter there, even if it's rearming.
3) Combat Air Patrol can't be used to shift a fighter into your opponent's land airbase, because the base isn't directly connected to any sea sectors (it's separated by that thick, black border).
Steve
This writing business. Pencils and what-not. Over-rated if you ask me. Silly stuff. Nothing in it. --Eeyore
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2 years ago ::
Jul 31, 2008 - 2:57PM
#3
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That was excellent follow-up. I think you should consider putting your answer in the Q & A. Especially the three 'corollaries.'
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2 years ago ::
Aug 02, 2008 - 8:02PM
#4
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If you do a once per game SA does the planes that haven't been assigned get pinned? Or if they don't have a rearming counter can they diploy as normal..
Also on a related topic, if each player has a plane assigned to CAP, can the guy going first when getting to the end of the assignment phase when the CAP special rule kicks in pin the other players CAP plane over the carrier?
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2 years ago ::
Aug 05, 2008 - 10:19AM
#5
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There's no "pinning" in either situation.
Steve
This writing business. Pencils and what-not. Over-rated if you ask me. Silly stuff. Nothing in it. --Eeyore
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2 years ago ::
Aug 05, 2008 - 11:15AM
#6
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Thank you, The CAP rule looked like a unit could be "pinned" in the CAP part of the turn.. and the airfield one did look odd to me, You have to catch them rearming basically?
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2 years ago ::
Aug 05, 2008 - 11:21AM
#7
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Or after your opponent has consigned an aircraft to the land airbase.
Steve
This writing business. Pencils and what-not. Over-rated if you ask me. Silly stuff. Nothing in it. --Eeyore
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