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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 12:24PM
#1
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Date Joined:
Oct 13, 2011
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Omen Machine  A friend of mine says that cast if able only means that you have to have a legal target in order to cast it, and you don't have to have the required mana to cast it. I know the card says casts it without paying its mana cost if able, so don't misunderstand my meaning. Having a legal target to be able to cast a spell is a given, I simply argue that you have to have the required mana available in order to cast it, since if you don't have the mana, you can't cast it anyway, regardless of a legal target being available (I'm not saying you have to pay the mana, just that it needs to be on the field). So who's right?
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 12:27PM
#2
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Date Joined:
Sep 17, 2005
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Omen Machine
A friend of mine says that cast if able only means that you have to have a legal target in order to cast it, and you don't have to have the required mana to cast it. I know the card says casts it without paying its mana cost if able, so don't misunderstand my meaning. Having a legal target to be able to cast a spell is a given, I simply argue that you have to have the required mana available in order to cast it, since if you don't have the mana, you can't cast it anyway, regardless of a legal target being available (I'm not saying you have to pay the mana, just that it needs to be on the field).
So who's right?
Your friend is right. You don't need to have the mana available. "If able" refers to being able to choose a legal target (if any), nothing like Silence  in effect, etc. If there are additional costs, then you would still have to pay those, so if something like Skaab Ruinator  was being cast you couldn't if you had an empty graveyard.
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 12:30PM
#3
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Date Joined:
Jul 28, 2010
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proud member of the 2011 community team
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 1:04PM
#4
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Date Joined:
Oct 13, 2011
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Omen Machine
A friend of mine says that cast if able only means that you have to have a legal target in order to cast it, and you don't have to have the required mana to cast it. I know the card says casts it without paying its mana cost if able, so don't misunderstand my meaning. Having a legal target to be able to cast a spell is a given, I simply argue that you have to have the required mana available in order to cast it, since if you don't have the mana, you can't cast it anyway, regardless of a legal target being available (I'm not saying you have to pay the mana, just that it needs to be on the field).
So who's right?
Your friend is right. You don't need to have the mana available. "If able" refers to being able to choose a legal target (if any), nothing like Silence in effect, etc. If there are additional costs, then you would still have to pay those, so if something like Skaab Ruinator was being cast you couldn't if you had an empty graveyard.
But if you don't have the mana to cast a spell, you wouldn't be able to cast it.
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 1:06PM
#5
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Date Joined:
Mar 12, 2011
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But you're instructed to cast without paying the mana cost. So you don't need any mana to be able cast it. You wouldn't normally be able to cast any spell anyway because you would need priority to do that, which you don't have while a spell/ability is resolving.
I'm a Rules Advisor now  "Simple questions" usually need rather complex answers, while complex questions often come down to no more than a simple "yes" or "no". Some of my favorite Flavor texts:
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 1:07PM
#6
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Date Joined:
May 15, 2001
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Normally that is true. But Omen machine says "without paying its mana cost" that means exactly what it says. As long as you can select targets and any other spell requirments, you can continue casting spells with Omen Machine after an Armageddon 
MTG Rules Advisor
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 1:08PM
#7
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Date Joined:
Jul 28, 2010
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you can also Suspend cards when you can pay the Suspend cost, even if you cannot pay the regular mana cost
and Suspend says "if you could begin to cast this card"
proud member of the 2011 community team
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 1:41PM
#8
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Date Joined:
Oct 13, 2011
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Normally that is true. But Omen machine says "without paying its mana cost" that means exactly what it says.
As long as you can select targets and any other spell requirments, you can continue casting spells with Omen Machine after an Armageddon
It says casts it without paying its mana cost if able. That leads me to believe that you would have to be able to pay the needed mana in order to cast. Not actually pay the mana, but have it either on the field, or in your mana pool. It should say something like If a legal target for the spell exists, the player casts it without paying its mana cost. Much more clear than casts it without paying its mana cost if able.
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 1:43PM
#9
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Date Joined:
Jan 19, 2003
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It should say something like If a legal target for the spell exists, the player casts it without paying its mana cost.
That wouldn't be enough though. The wording also needs to account for unpayable additional costs  and for effects that can prevent you from casting the spell (eg, Silence )
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4 months ago ::
Jan 19, 2013 - 1:45PM
#10
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Date Joined:
May 15, 2001
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For it to work they way you are thinking, it would have to say so on the card. Omen Machine would need to say something like "Cast the spell without paying the mana cost, only if you could pay the mana cost if you were required to" Or something like that. As the rules are written when casting a card without paying the mana cost, you are not required to have the appropriate mana producing lands/permanents on the battlefield. Besides, how would Omen Machine know if your opponent has a Dark Ritual  in has hand? Do you feel that your opponent should now be required to reveal his hand because of omen machine?
MTG Rules Advisor
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