familiar ruse vs no creatures

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hi guys

during a game with a friend of mine, this doubt came up :

he activated a faerie conclave i let the abillity resolve and pass priority to him.
he then played Familiar’s Ruse in response i used nameless inversion on his only creature,the activated faerie conclave.
my question is what happens to the familiar ruse ?? does it resolve since the additional cost was targetted even thought the creature wasnt on the table ?? i thought it would fizzle since when it resolve and checks for a valid target for its additional cost it would find none .

thanx in advance for ure help
hi guys

during a game with a friend of mine, this doubt came up :

he activated a faerie conclave i let the abillity resolve and pass priority to him.
he then played Familiar’s Ruse in response i used nameless inversion on his only creature,the activated faerie conclave.

Stopped reading right there. You could not do that. ALL costs are paid before players receive priority to play spells. Just like you can't Wrecking Ball a land he's tapping to stop him from adding the mana to his pool, so can't you kill a bounced creature used as an additional cost.
It is part of the cost, so it would have to be paid at the same time it was played.
ok thank you all for u're help