Allied Opportunity + Mark + CC?

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Had a rules question come up:

Situation: 2 fighters, Fighter A, and Fighter B, both adjacent to BBEG.  Squishy A is also in reach of BBEG.

Figher A and B both have Allied Opportunity.

Fighter A has BBEG marked.

BBEG attacks Squishy A, triggering CC of Fighter A.  Fighter A makes CC attack, then allows Fighter B to make MBA as OA.  Fighter B makes his MBA, which marks BBEG and erases Fighter As mark.

So question:

Now, since the CC and OA were both interrupts, the BBEG is essentially marked by Fighter B before he makes the attack, which means now that he is making the attack (after getting smacked twice) would he now trigger Fighter Bs CC? 
No.

Triggers happen only once.  The creature was not marked by fighter B at the time he made the attack.  The attack is now resolving, yes, but the trigger event has already passed.
D&D Next = D&D: Quantum Edition
Ok.  I thought it would be something along those lines, but the timing rules are not detailed so well, as far as I know.  Do you know if there is a rule you can cite that specifies how interrupts, which change the order of events, interact with triggers?
Yes, the interrupt rules.  You have DDI, so it's available in Compendium.  The important part is to note that interrupts resolve before their triggers resolve, but they do not resolve before their triggers trigger.
D&D Next = D&D: Quantum Edition
Ok.  I would have gone either way on it, personally, even after reading the interrupt rules, but our group typically goes with whatever answers we get from the rules forums (unless there are supporters to both sides, then we decide on an answer ourselves).

Also, Fighter B should make his MBA before Fighter A since Opportunity Action also interrupt.


Does applying the mark with Fighter B's MBA invalidate its trigger, since the creature is no longer marked by Fighter A?
D&D Next = D&D: Quantum Edition
Good points, I didn't notice the little part about the allies attack triggering off the original CC attack.  I thought it came after the CC attack.

If it worked the other way I was thinking, Fighter A would make their CC attack, AO would let Fighter B make their MBA in response to the CC attack, which would then take the mark from B, which would invalidate the initial CC attack that started it all.

So it would have to work the way Mand has stated, because otherwise it would create a paradox in which the attacks would keep invalidating each other. 
Does applying the mark with Fighter B's MBA invalidate its trigger, since the creature is no longer marked by Fighter A?


No. When Fighter B makes his MBA as an Opportunity Action, Fighter A's MBA hasn't resolve yet, but it has started to occur and thus already triggered.
But my question is this:  is a MBA granted by Combat Challenge dependent on the mark being in place when the MBA resolves in order to be valid?  That seems an open question, and not one that can be answered.

Take another hypothetical:  I attack the squishy, violating the mark.  I use an interrupt (somehow, don't nitpick me about immediate/opportunity on my turn, maybe it's a must-function-as-interrupt triggered free action) that removes the mark.  Does the MBA still happen?
D&D Next = D&D: Quantum Edition
I think unless the power specifically says it removes the mark so that you can't be attacked by them, then the attack still happens.  though it would depend on the trigger, etc.

A better power would trigger off getting marked in the first place, rather than waiting until the marker goes to enforce the mark.

But my question is this:  is a MBA granted by Combat Challenge dependent on the mark being in place when the MBA resolves in order to be valid?  That seems an open question, and not one that can be answered.

Take another hypothetical:  I attack the squishy, violating the mark.  I use an interrupt (somehow, don't nitpick me about immediate/opportunity on my turn, maybe it's a must-function-as-interrupt triggered free action) that removes the mark.  Does the MBA still happen?

Yes it does. Its similar to an Immobilizing MBA on an OA. If the target can't finally leave its square did it provoked an OA ? Yes, because it started to leave its space but never resolved the move. Similarly, the MBA still happen if the mark is removed as an interrupt to triggering it because the MBA has started to occur and is interruped before it resolved, but still has been triggered.

In the OPs exemple, the BBEG's attack has started to occur  but hasn't resolved yet when it trigger Fighter A CC's MBA and Fighter A CC's MBA has started to occur but hasn't resolved yet when Fighter's B MBA takes place.
So does the -2 penalty from being marked apply?
D&D Next = D&D: Quantum Edition
No, since when you resolve the attack you aren't marked anymore. When an attack is made and midway through the attack process some bonuses or penalties are applied, when it resolve it must account for them (ex. Disruptive Strike).

 
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